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Wally (Anonymous, 88.151.141.) Warszawa 17 months ago

Does 1 mg of Sedam correspond to 1 mg of Aphobe?

I have a question about the drugs Sedam 3 and Afobam 0.25. At first, I had previously taken 3 times a day afobam 0.25 mg (if I count correctly, then throughout the day 0.75 mg of ;). If both drugs are benzo themselves, is it like now I take Sedam 3 - half a tablet, or 1.5 mg? so it's twice as much afobamu? In short, the meaning of the question is whether, for example, 1 mg of afobam, corresponds to 1 mg of sedam?

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Aleksandra Berdys Pharmacist

17 months ago

Sedam contains Bromazepam and Afobam contains Alprazolam. Drugs belong to the group of benzodiazepines, but these are not equivalents, only completely different drugs (active substances). So if 1 mg of Sedam corresponded to 1 mg of Afobam, they would be equivalent to these drugs, and they are not. Benzodiazepines are used in the smallest possible effective dose, for the shortest possible time and a maximum of 2-4 weeks due to the risk of addiction. Both Bromazepam and Alprazolam are medium-acting benzodiazepines, of which Bromazepam is several hours longer. Article that may be of interest to you: https://www.gdziepolek.pl/artykuly/jakie-leki-powoduja-uzaleznienie

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